I have three classes: B
, D
and G
. D
is a B
and G
is a D
. Both B
and D
are abstract. B
is from a third party.
B
has a non-pure, virtual method that G
needs to implement (to be a D
). Can I and is it good practice to redefine/override a virtual function to be pure virtual?
Example:
class B // from a third party
{
public:
virtual void foo();
};
class D : public B
{
public:
void foo() override = 0; // allowed by gcc 4.8.2
virtual void bar() = 0;
};
class G : public D
{
public:
// forgot to reimplement foo
void bar() override;
};
int main()
{
G test; // compiler error is desired
}
To the question of "can I?" gcc allows it, but I do not have the terms/vocabulary to verify the behavior is part of the standard or is undefined and happens to work today.
foo()
in G pure virtual, or not? – Jaclin