If I understand correctly, in a CSRF attack a malicious website A tells my browser to send a request to site B. My browser will automatically include my B cookies in that request. Although A cannot see those cookies, if I'm already authenticated in B the request will look legit, and whatever action was asked will be successfully performed. To avoid this, every time that I visit a page of B containing a form, I receive a CSRF token. This token is associated to my session, so if I make a POST to B I MUST include such token; otherwise B rejects my request. The benefit of this scheme is that A will not have access to that token.
I have two questions:
- Is the above description correct?
- If so, why can't site A first tell my browser to send a GET to B, obtain the CSRF token from the response, and then use the token to send now a POST to B? Notice that the token will be valid and associated to my session, as the GET also contains all my B cookies.
Thanks!